Private Pilot Glider Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What is the lower boundary of Class E airspace at Tomlinson Airport?
• Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?
• When seeking thermals, which observational cue can help locate them besides cloud formation?
• All pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than what altitude?
• Which statement is true about the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?
• Which fog type is associated with wind-driven, horizontal movement of air masses?
• An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right of way?
• For an aerotow of a glider with certificated gross weight of 1040 pounds, what is the minimum allowable towline strength?
• How can a pilot locate bubble thermals?
• In the density-altitude scenario, what was the length of the gravel strip?
• The CAUTION box on sectional charts denotes which hazard to aircraft?
• If you are operating a glider equipped with a 4097 code radar beacon transponder and not in contact with an ATC facility, what is the transponder code you should be squawking?
• To which FAA division must a motor vehicle action conviction be reported?
• Which of the following describes unstable air?
• What is the required action regarding safety belts and passengers during taxi, takeoffs, and landings?
• What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventative maintenance?
• No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least how many calendar months?
• Which of the following statements about safety belt usage for passengers is true?
• Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
• One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a:
• With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with
• During which period is a sea breeze front most suitable for soaring flight?
• What is one common factor that affects most preventable aviation accidents?
• What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect?
• Makeeff is located at approximately which coordinates?
• For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is
• How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day?
• What weather phenomenon is always present with thunderstorms and can affect aircraft operations due to electrical activity?
• What is the forecast wind for KMEM from 1600Z until the end of the forecast?
• In class C airspace, if ADS-B Out is inoperative, when must a pilot request ATC assistance?
• Who is responsible for the preflight briefing of seat belt use?
• To update a previous weather briefing, a pilot should request:
• From a north heading, a left turn will cause the magnetic compass to indicate an initial turn toward which direction?
• In the Northern Hemisphere, acceleration on an east heading will cause the compass to indicate a turn toward which direction?
• A third-class-medical certificate is issued to a 51 year old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on which date and how many years later?
• Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land when at
• The mature stage of a thunderstorm begins with what event?
• Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?
• Which are the classes of aircraft under airman certification?
• The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is
• What is it often called when a pilot pushes the aircraft’s limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceiling?
• Given placards indicate MINIMUM PILOT WEIGHT 135 lb and MAXIMUM 220 lb, and seat ballast can be used as necessary; if the pilot's weight is 115 lb, what adjustment should be made?
• How should the 500-pound weight be shifted to balance the plank on the fulcrum?
• What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air?
• In a dust devil, which action is the recommended safety practice?
• During a stable-weather day, where should a glider pilot expect to find lift for soaring?
• First Flight Airport is located in which area number?
• The ELT test window is defined as:
• Which side of a rocky knoll, surrounded by vegetation, should a pilot find the best thermals?
• Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?
• Shoulder harnesses must be fastened during which phases?
• A sailplane has lost 2,000 feet in 9 nautical miles. The best glide ratio for this sailplane is approximately which value?
• Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a
• Why should you systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals during traffic scanning?
• What is the gust speed at Wink (KINK)?
• To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to which records?
• Ice pellets observed at the surface are evidence of which higher-altitude condition?
• Which airport is located at approximately 47°21'N latitude and 101°01'W longitude?
• The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately
• The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?
• What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
• Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by which of the following?',
• How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
• The outside controlled airspace minimums apply to which altitude range?
• How are forward slips normally performed in a sailplane?
• When there is a temperature inversion, you would expect to experience which change with altitude?
• What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?
• With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to but does not include
• True altitude is the aircraft’s height above which reference point when using the described altimeter setting?
• The floor of Class B airspace at Addison Airport is how high?
• An almond-shaped cloud that appears stationary but may contain winds of 50 knots or more is called what?
• The behavior of wake vortices from a large aircraft requires following pilots to
• Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is Class D airspace only when the associated control tower is in operation.
• Hazardous attitudes commonly encountered by pilots include
• The wind and temperature at 12,000 feet MSL as reported by a pilot are
• The suffix "nimbus," used in naming clouds, means?
• What is one of the best first pieces of information to provide when contacting a weather briefing facility to tailor the briefing?
• To tow a glider, what minimum pilot in command time must be logged for the towing aircraft?
• When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?
• Which example correctly pairs an airman certification category with a class?
• How far will an aircraft travel in 2-1/2 minutes with a groundspeed of 98 knots?
• Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?
• What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?
• When is the next required flight review if the last flight review was completed on August 8?
• To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in?
• Which term describes the angular difference between true north and magnetic north?
• Regarding stall speed and altitude for a given configuration, which is true?
• If a rechargeable ELT battery has not been used, when should it be replaced or recharged?
• In a glider or conventional airplane, moving the CG farther aft generally results in:
• If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
• Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in which publication?
• The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and which air condition?
• Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by which of the following?
• GFA stands for Graphical Forecasts for Aviation, which provides outlook for what scope?
• An indication that the glider has begun a turn too soon on aerotow is that the towplane's nose is pulled which way?
• What is the minimum safe altitude over open water or sparsely populated areas?
• SHRA in TAF terms indicates which weather event?
• SIGMETS are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft?
• To verify the ELT status during shutdown checks, which frequency should be monitored?
• Which condition describes the effect of reduced downwash on the elevator due to reduced power?
• The required action to verify ELT status pre-shutdown is to:
• What is the recommended timing for an ELT test?
• During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is
• Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder-equipped aircraft, a pilot should squawk which VFR code?
• When departing behind a heavy aircraft the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft
• During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight?
• In S-turns, a slower rate of bank increase during the latter part of the turn would most likely lead to which pattern?
• The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is
• Which items are included in the empty weight of an aircraft?
• For restricted category civil aircraft, flight over densely populated areas is:
• With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during
• The Aeronautical Information Manual suggests turning on landing lights below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating in what condition?
• Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in which effect?
• The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is
• Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone County Airport.
• Currituck County Airport is approximately located at which coordinates?
• In flying the rectangular course when would the aircraft be turned less than 90 degrees?
• A sailplane has a best glide ratio of 30:1. How many nautical miles will the glider travel while losing 2,000 feet?
• Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?
• If an emergency situation requires a downwind landing, pilots should expect a faster
• Hazardous wind shear is more likely to occur in the presence of which atmospheric condition?
• May a pilot operate an aircraft not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)?
• Which altitude is defined as the pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature?
• Which item is included in the empty weight of an aircraft?
• Which airspace has basic VFR weather minimums of 1000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility?
• Most midair collision accidents occur during which condition?
• Which cloud-base feature is associated with a thermal's visual cue?
• Devils Lake East MOA hazards include which type of military activity?
• On which side of a sunlit rocky knoll should a pilot find the best thermals?
• A sailplane has a best glide ratio of 23:1. How many feet will the glider lose in 8 nautical miles?
• What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?
• Tomlinson Airport is located in which area number?
• If the CG is moved forward relative to the center of lift, how does stability typically change?
• During ground operations for a departing VFR aircraft, from whom should radar traffic information be requested?
• The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is approximately?
• During a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, what is the PIC required to determine?
• Which statement best describes the daylight VFR minimums over a town between 1,200 AGL and 10,000 MSL?
• When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?
• Which instruments would be affected if the static vents are clogged but the pitot system remains functional?
• Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?
• Which item is required for Class C airspace in addition to two-way radio communications?
• When talking to a Flight Service weather briefer, you should state whether the flight is VFR or IFR.
• What is the typical validity period for a pilot proficiency check endorsement for acting as PIC with passengers?
• Which statement best describes the role of recognizing hazardous thoughts in ADM?
• No person may take off or land under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the ground visibility at that airport is at least?
• What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot-in-command of an aircraft?
• The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is?
• In a traffic advisory, which term identifies traffic located to the left side of the aircraft's nose?
• FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject matter number?
• The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will
• What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's)?
• How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?
• What should the magnetic compass indicate as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
• If the sailplane becomes airborne and the towplane loses power before leaving the ground, what should the sailplane do?
• What is the proper initial contact phrase with McAlester Flight Service for the aircraft in the example?
• What is an advantage of using a center-of-gravity (CG) hook for a winch tow compared with a nose hook?
• Which condition requires all occupants to wear an approved parachute during flight?
• Which antidotal phrase helps reverse the hazardous attitude of impulsivity?
• FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject matter?
• The purpose of monitoring 121.5 prior to engine shutdown is to determine:
• For a first-class medical certificate issued to a 23-year-old pilot on October 21, this year, when will it expire?
• Which procedure supports ensuring the ELT has not been activated?
• No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
• Which code should a glider with a radar beacon transponder be squawking if not in contact with ATC?
• Your cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding?
• The daylight visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are
• What four flight fundamentals are involved in maneuvering an aircraft?
• For private pilot operations under BasicMed, the pilot in command is allowed to fly no more than how many passengers?
• A third-class medical certificate was issued to a 19-year-old pilot on August 10 this year. To exercise privileges of a recreational or private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on which date?
• Using a best glide ratio of 30:1, how many nautical miles would be traveled to lose approximately 200 feet?
• V/NO is defined as the
• In a four-satellite GPS solution, which additional parameter is solved for besides latitude, longitude, and altitude?
• Which public-use airport depicted is indicated as having fuel?
• The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB
• A sailplane with a lift/drag ratio of 22:1 sinks approximately how many feet over 15 nautical miles?
• Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?
• If you are assessing the expiration of a third-class medical certificate for a pilot under 40 versus over 40, how does the expiration period vary?
• At what altitudes should you identify a suitable landing area and a specific field when getting too low on cross-country flight?
• While on a VFR cross country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency
• In the KOKC forecast, the overcast layer is at what altitude?
• What is a characteristic of stable air?
• Which action is recommended to confirm the ELT has not activated when preparing to shut down?
• In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?
• The PIC must brief passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.
• During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the airplane to
• Each person operating an aircraft equipped with ADS-B Out must operate this equipment
• Which statement best describes the relationship between CG and longitudinal stability?
• During a rectangular course, a turn less than 90 degrees is typically associated with which corners?
• What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?
• Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?
• Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that the ceiling is at least and visibility is?
• During flight at higher altitudes, the risk of carbon monoxide poisoning increases due to
• Over Tomlinson Airport, which airspace structure correctly describes the area from the surface up to 1,200 ft AGL and from 1,200 ft AGL to 18,000 ft MSL?
• Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?
• Using a best glide ratio of 23:1, how many feet would be lost if the glider travels 12 nautical miles?
• What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?
• May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?
• The base and tops of the overcast layer reported by a pilot are
• The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the
• A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as the primary airport, requires radio communications to be established with which facility?
• To confirm the ELT has not activated, you should:
• During takeoff, if the towplane is still on the ground and the sailplane begins to drift to the left, what corrective action should the pilot take?
• If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?
• Which of the following statements is true about the Chesapeake Regional Airport's elevation?
• In the northern hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn to the north if the aircraft accelerates while on which heading?
• For rental aircraft used for flight instruction, which inspections are required?
• What is the magnetic course from Tomlinson Airport (area 1) to Jamestown Airport (area 4)?
• The terrain elevation in the area between Minot and Audubon Lake varies from what range in feet MSL?
• Which records or documents shall the owner or operator keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive?
• Which are categories of aircraft under airman certification?
• If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch, how long is the privilege period?
• When using a towline with breaking strength more than twice the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider, where must an approved safety link be installed?
• Which of the following lists all four airman certification categories?
• The proper time window for testing an ELT is:
• Which type of thunderstorm generally produces the most intense hazard to aircraft?
• Which instrument's readings are fundamentally based on pitot pressure in a sailplane?
• Across a front, one discontinuity is easily recognized. Which change is it?
• What is the correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC?
• Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?
• Which situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?
• The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is
• What is the daytime VFR minimum immediately after takeoff from Cooperstown Airport when at or below 700 feet AGL?
• What is the angle of attack in aerodynamics?
• For an aerotow of a glider with a certificated gross weight of 700 pounds, what is the minimum allowable towline strength?
• In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate correctly when on which heading?
• Which nighttime condition is most commonly associated with a ground-based temperature inversion?
• If a detailed report is requested after an emergency deviation, to whom should the report be submitted?
• The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents what?
• The capacity of air to hold water vapor increases with which factor?
• What does the outbound destination sign identify?
• Which types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist?
• For LAHSO operations, the minimum required visibility to receive clearance is
• In hazy conditions, how are traffic or terrain features perceived?
• Which facility is being addressed at the start of the initial contact phrase?
• If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate which of the following?
• What is pressure altitude?
• The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately
• Which requirement applies to recreational or private pilots?
• In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to accumulate the fastest?
• Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?
• When the term "light and variable" is used in reference to a Winds Aloft Forecast, the coded group and wind speed is
• Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?
• When would density altitude equal pressure altitude?
• When rechargeable, batteries in an ELT must be replaced or recharged after which condition?
• When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)?
• What are the wind conditions at Wink, Texas (KINK)?
• When a stressful situation is encountered in flight, an abnormal increase in volume of air breathed in and out can cause which condition?
• How far must an aircraft stay from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure when not over congested areas?
• A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is
• What is the best visual indication of a thermal?
• When flying over Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge, what is the minimum altitude a pilot should maintain?
• In steady, level flight, which force is primarily opposite to weight?
• Which antidotal phrase helps reverse the hazardous attitude of antiauthority?
• The maximum cabin pressure altitude above which oxygen is required for flight is
• What is the magnetic course from First Flight Airport (area 5) to Hampton Roads Airport (area 2)?
• Upslope flow of warm, moist air leads to which cloud type?
• What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying?
• What is the sole condition under which wreckage may be moved prior to NTSB custody?
• What effect would gusts and turbulence have on the load factor of a glider as airspeed changes?
• Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as what?
• If the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014, the next inspection will be due no later than what date?
• What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?
• If the outside air temperature at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude is
• In addition to the standard briefing, what additional information should be asked to evaluate soaring conditions?
• Which entry angle is recommended for joining the airport traffic pattern's downwind leg?
• The V-speed that denotes the normal operating range is?
• A pilot experiencing the effects of hyperventilation should be able to restore the proper carbon dioxide level in the body by which methods?
• As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of?
• To obtain maximum distance over the ground, the airspeed to use is which of the following?
• Which class designation would apply to a single-engine aircraft intended for land operation?
• Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
• What is the purpose of seat ballast in a two-place glider when solo in the front seat?
• An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates
• A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach indicator is
• In the KMEM TAF, what does SHRA stand for?
• To act as PIC of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class and if a type rating is required, of the same type. Which choice reflects this requirement?
• What is the proper airspeed to use when flying between thermals on a cross country flight against a headwind?
• Risk management within ADM relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?
• When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right of way belongs to the aircraft ...
• Under which regulation are pilots authorized to perform preventative maintenance?
• If ground visibility at a Class D airport is 2 miles, can you take off under basic VFR?
• Which of the following best describes where you would find the mandatory actions relating to aircraft safety problems addressed by ADs?
• The normal vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is what?
• When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot's personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?
• Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs
• Inbound traffic to a non-towered airport should monitor the appropriate facility from what distance?
• The completion of an annual condition inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should be indicated by what in the maintenance records?
• Which in-flight condition is necessary for aircraft structural icing to form?
• For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth's surface of the
• If the temperature-dewpoint spread is small and decreasing, and the temperature is 62 degrees F, what type of weather is most likely to develop?
• For a VFR flight away from the departure airport, which data must the PIC determine?
• Which forecast provides a wind of 230° true at 32 knots?
• What two elements are used to determine an aircraft's airworthiness prior to flight?
• Within what time frame must the three actual or simulated glider tows be accomplished to qualify for towing a glider?
• In aviation regulation, the term Airworthiness Directives refers to
• A sailplane pilot can differentiate between a spin and a spiral dive because in a spiral dive, what happens to the G loads?
• Which statement best describes where wind shear can occur?
• During an in-flight emergency, the PIC may deviate from CFR rules to the extent required to meet the emergency.
• What is the proper entry that authorizes return to service after maintenance?
• What is the signal to stop the tow operation?
• What is the minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?
• On a warm day, the indicated altitude is typically what relative to the true altitude?
• The most frequent ground or surface-based temperature inversion is produced by which mechanism?
• Which statement correctly describes operating a restricted category civil aircraft?
• Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately rated pilot who holds at least a
• Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to
• Which organization prescribes the regulations that govern maintaining airworthiness and keeping aircraft records, including FARs?
• The difference in wind direction between the surface and the wind at 5,000 feet AGL is primarily due to which factor?
• Which sign identifies a paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering?
• If there is thunderstorm activity near an airport you plan to land at, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach?
• The maximum terrain elevation in the Minot to Audubon Lake area is what height in feet MSL?
• An alternating red and green light signal from the control tower means which of the following?
• What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points?
• In controlled airspace below 1,200 feet AGL, what is the minimum horizontal distance from clouds for VFR flight?
• Which action is required before returning to service after a repair that could affect operation?
• The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is
• Who may request to inspect a pilot certificate or medical certificate?
• Which organization should receive a filed VFR flight plan?
• What is the correct order of the main stages of a thunderstorm from earliest to latest?
• Low level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?
• Which statement correctly describes the expiration pattern for a second-class medical certificate issued to a 42-year-old pilot on July 15?
• The runway ends marked with the numbers 9 and 27 indicate approximate magnetic headings of
• FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?
• Which airport is located at approximately 47°35'30"N latitude and 100°43'00"W longitude?
• Between 1000Z and 1200Z the visibility at KMEM is forecast to be
• During a left-hand thermalling maneuver at minimum sink speed in turbulent air, if the left wing drops, what corrective action should you take?
• What is the minimum number of glider tow flights a pilot must complete within the 24 months before acting as PIC for towing a glider?
• During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is?
• Savannah Class C airspace shelf floor is 1,300 ft MSL.
• While operating in Class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall
• Who has the final authority as to the operation of an aircraft?
• Determine the wind and temperature aloft forecast for MKC at 6,000 feet.
• If the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit, which undesirable flight characteristic might the pilot experience?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between airman certification categories and classes?
• In the example flight, which area is Kleberg Co Airport located in?
• What minimum equipment is required for a flight from Kleberg Co Airport (area 7) to Corpus Christi Intl. Airport (area 3)?
• A blue segmented circle on a sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?
• What is meant by the term "dewpoint"?
• Which fog is most likely to present hazards due to low-level turbulence and potential icing?
• What is the time frame for the operator to submit a report to the NTSB when requested?
• Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?
• To maintain BasicMed privileges you are required to complete the comprehensive medical examination checklist (CMEC) every how many months?
• The daylight operation of the rotating beacon indicates weather below basic VFR minimums at airports located in which airspace class?
• The yellow demarcation bar marking indicates
• Sea breeze circulation is driven by which air movement?
• Which statement best describes how the dew point relates to air saturation?
• What type of ADS-B Out equipment is required for aircraft operating below 18,000 feet MSL when flying in Class C airspace?
• Which statement best describes a squall line?
• What is the minimum visibility requirement for VFR flight above 10,000 feet MSL in controlled airspace?
• If the downwind landing is required, which outcome is most likely at touchdown?
• For private pilot operations, a second class medical certificate issued to a 42 year old pilot on July 15, this year, will expire at midnight on which date and how many years later?
• The standard practice for ELT status verification involves listening to which frequency?
• If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?
• Why might ballast be added to the seat in the front cockpit before tow?
• The minimum certificate for a pilot who conducts the post-modification flight test prior to passenger operations is
• What was the takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle in the scenario?
• Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of which cloud type and turbulence level?
• Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives are complied with?
• What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
• Under what condition may aircraft operate in formation flight?
• Standing lenticular clouds indicate mountain-wave activity and help identify turbulence associated with what feature?
• The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on which factor?
• To act as PIC carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same?
• Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?
• During acceleration or deceleration, the magnetic compass will normally indicate correctly on which headings?
• What is the top altitude of Fort Worth Meacham's Class D airspace?
• To operate under BasicMed the pilot in command must have completed a physical examination by a state licensed physician within the preceding which period?
• The flag symbols at three airports serve as visual checkpoints for initial callup prior to entering which airspace?
• During an emergency deviation from CFR, who may the pilot deviate from?
• Which maneuver is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?
• Which authority may request inspection of a pilot's certificate?
• Within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport, airspace from the surface to 700 ft AGL is classified as which class?
• What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
• What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
• Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
• How soon after a conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs must the motor vehicle action be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?
• What wind is forecast for STL at 9,000 feet?
• Ground effect is most pronounced when the aircraft is at what height above the surface?
• If you are flying at a cabin altitude of 13,000 feet MSL and plan a 45-minute leg, how many minutes of supplemental oxygen would be required?
• Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?
• Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to sink below the generating aircraft, causing turbulence to
• At cabin pressure altitudes within 12,500 to 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen is required for which portion of a flight time?
• If the terrain elevation is 1,295 feet MSL, what is the height above ground level of the base of the ceiling?
• Which cloud types indicate convective turbulence?
• Which statement correctly pairs air stability with turbulence and visibility?
• Detonation may occur at high-power settings when
• Which reference is most reliable to maintain control when spatial disorientation is suspected in reduced visibility?
• Using a best glide ratio of 27:1, how many feet will be lost if the glider travels 2 nautical miles?
• What frequency does an ELT emit on when activated, according to standard maintenance procedures?
• Which sign denotes intersecting runways?
• What force makes an airplane turn?
• The only cloud type forecast in the TAF reports is which?
• Which antidotal phrase helps reverse the hazardous attitude of invulnerability?
• What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information?
• During a forward slip, which device is typically fully open to facilitate the maneuver?
• Which conditions result in the formation of frost?
• All operations within Class C airspace must be in
• When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on which frequency?
• Which statement about AIRMETs is true?
• If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?
• Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seat belts is the responsibility of
• Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is
• How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
• If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?
• During 0600Z to 0800Z what visibility is forecast for KOKC?
• What force provides the forward motion necessary to move a glider through the air?
• What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?
• V/SO is defined as the
• Which reporting stations have VFR weather?
• Which stage of a thunderstorm is typically associated with the most intense turbulence and gusty winds?
• ADS-B Out broadcasts the aircraft's which data?
• At approximately what altitude above the surface would the pilot expect the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temperature is 82 degrees Fahrenheit and the dewpoint is 38 degrees Fahrenheit?
• What is a recommended procedure for entering a dust devil for soaring?
• Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least
• This means that for every 23 feet of forward travel, the altitude lost is how many feet?
• Which of the following is NOT a recognized aircraft category under airman certification?
• What approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
• Why is frost hazardous to flight?
• What instrument becomes inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?
• In the event of an aircraft accident, which office should be notified immediately?
• What is an important precaution when soaring in a dust devil?
• Preventative maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?
• According to placards, what is the maximum pilot weight for the front seat?
• The airspace over Collin Co RGL McKinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to which altitude MSL?
• Outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is?
• Which statement about ADS-B Out near Class B airspace is true?
• In the density altitude scenario, after calculating takeoff distance it shows 1,980 feet; what is the best course of action?
• Which statement about Airworthiness Directives is accurate?
• A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?
• Along IR 644, what type of military flight operations should a pilot expect?
• An advisory states 'TRAFFIC 9 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND'. Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
• Which regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventative maintenance?
• Which statement about flap usage during approach is true?
• If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, what must be done before the aircraft is operated?
• Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office?
• What general time period is specified for lighted position lights, excluding Alaska?
• Which statement best describes the necessary condition for icing to occur in flight?
• Which statement best describes the Outer Area of Class C airspace?
• In restricted visibility, the best way to overcome spatial disorientation is to
• Which V speed represents maneuvering speed?
• During daytime collision avoidance scanning, how should eye movements be limited?
• Which cloud type is associated with the greatest turbulence in the atmosphere?
• What are AIRMETs?
• How long would it take to travel 14.25 NM at a groundspeed of 114 knots?
• Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?
• When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to
• Determine the density altitude for these conditions: Altimeter setting 29.25, Runway temperature +81°, Airport elevation 5,250 ft MSL.
• Clouds are divided into four families according to their height range. Which term describes this criterion?
• Which cloud condition is explicitly forecast in the TAF reports?
• TRSA service in the terminal radar program provides which of the following?
• Which statement correctly describes the vertical limits of Class E airspace over Magee Airport designated as a Federal Airway?
• As pilot in command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance?
• Which altitude is described as the vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface?
• When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?
• What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?
• To best determine general forecast weather conditions covering a flight information region, the pilot should refer to which product?
• To stop pitch oscillation (porpoising) during a winch launch, what should the pilot do?
• With the advisory 'TRAFFIC 2 O'CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND', where should a pilot look for this traffic?
• During flight, the magnetic compass indications are accurate only in which condition?
• When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, what should you state?
• What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere?
• A pilot can expect a wind shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least
• Which of the following is NOT one of the four primary forces acting on an airplane?
• Jamestown Airport is located in which area number?
• As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will
• In ATC advisories, which position does '9 O'CLOCK' correspond to relative to the aircraft?
• Who is responsible for filing an NTSB accident report within 10 days after an accident?
• How should a VFR flight plan be closed at completion of the flight at a controlled airport?
• What term is used to describe the compass error caused by the aircraft's own magnetic fields and electrical systems?
• In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when the aircraft is decelerated on which heading?
• What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?
• A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is:
• An ATC clearance provides
• Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft's
• An operable 4096-code transponder and mode C encoding altimeter are required in which airspace?
• Washburn is located at approximately which coordinates?
• Which condition is explicitly listed as a frost-formation prerequisite regarding dew point?
• What is the purpose of setting the standard pressure of 29.92 inches of mercury during flight levels?
• Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure?
• Which of the following is NOT a standard type of weather briefing?
• How many pounds under gross weight was the airplane in the scenario?
• Which class designation would apply to a multi-engine aircraft intended for sea operations?
• In addition to a valid airworthiness certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?
• Which trio of documents must accompany the aircraft during flight to validate ongoing airworthiness and registration?
• Which cloud type is most commonly associated with lifting action and unstable, moist air?
• What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?
• Which airspace designation exists directly over Findlay at the surface?
• The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally
• Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms?
• Which altitude should be used to reflect performance effects caused by nonstandard temperature?
• When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?
• For VFR operations at or above 10,000 feet MSL, what is the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required?
• What effect does warming from below have on the atmosphere?
• Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
• With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?
• Which antidotal phrase helps reverse the hazardous attitude of “resignation”?
• Which airport's forecast shows visibility greater than 6 statute miles during 0600Z to 0800Z?
• Which statement about weather processes is accurate?
• In daylight conditions, what vertical clearance must be maintained when flying in controlled airspace between 1,200 AGL and 10,000 MSL?
• Which statement best describes a temperature inversion?
• At MKC, which altitude corresponds to a wind of 200° true at 6 knots with a temperature of +3°C?
• The daylight visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are
• The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace?
• In the wind triangle example, if heading 135° yields track 130°, TAS 135 knots yields GS 140 knots, the wind would be from which direction and speed?
• An operable 4096-code transponder with encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?
• A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed within the preceding
• Stable air is typically indicated by which cloud type?
• When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency submit a written report to the Administrator?
• When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, what must the pilot do?
• Which data is most essential to determine the thermal index at all soaring levels?
• Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?
• An approved chair type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding ...
• Airspace around an airport with a part-time control tower is Class D during what condition?
• Under the privileges and limitations, a private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata share of operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses involve only which items?
• Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?
• What is the valid period for the TAF for KMEM?
• Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include which element?
• If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is?
• During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes more than 1,200 feet AGL but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds required for VFR flight is
• What causes a nose-down pitch when power is reduced and the pilot does not adjust the controls, in a typical airplane (not a T-tail)?
• An airport rotating beacon operation in daylight indicates weather below basic VFR minimums at airports located in which airspace class?
• Which document should reflect the date of the most recent transponder inspection?
• Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?
• When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying
• What was the elevation of the gravel strip in the scenario?
• How many GPS satellites are required to yield a three dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution?
• What is the antidotal phrase that helps reverse the hazardous attitude of “macho”?
• What is the minimum pilot certificate required for a flight departing from Hayward Executive?
• Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request when departing within the hour, if no preliminary weather information has been received?
• VFR flights are prohibited in which airspace class?
• The magnetic compass will initially indicate which direction when a right turn is entered from a north heading?
• To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight, the pilot should request:
• What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms?
• When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) the pilot shall
• Lack of orientation with regard to the aircraft’s position, attitude, or movement in space is defined as
• Who may perform the physical examination required for BasicMed?
• The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are
• An airplane said to be inherently stable will:
• To reduce the danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions, a pilot should
• When warm, moist, stable air flows upslope, it tends to produce which type of clouds?
• Which of the following statements is true regarding ELT battery maintenance?
• What is considered the most hazardous condition when soaring in the vicinity of thunderstorms?
• What is the wind direction at KJFK in degrees true?
• Condensation of water vapor leads to the formation of which of the following?
• Which documents must accompany the aircraft during flight to verify airworthiness and registration?
• Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?
• If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified
• What is the likely cloud base when the surface temperature is high and dewpoint is relatively low, such as 82°F and 38°F?
• At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used for flight time in excess of how many minutes?
• An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0930 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what time?
• Currituck County Airport is approximately located at which coordinates?
• Which factor causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points?
• Which statement best defines hypoxia?
• Which set of hazardous attitudes is explicitly listed as occurring to pilots to some degree at times?
• For Class C airspace, what ADS-B Out options are acceptable below 18,000 feet MSL?
• Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?
• Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
• To act as PIC carrying passengers, a pilot must have a pilot proficiency check within the preceding 24 calendar months. In which option is this correctly stated?
• What is the correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC?
• In a traffic advisory, what distance does '5 MILES' indicate?
• In S-turns, if one side's half circle is consistently smaller and the turn is not completed before crossing the road, this would most likely occur in which segments?
• Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
• What minimum upward current must a glider encounter to maintain altitude?
• Where may the most favorable type thermals for cross-country soaring be found?
• In the example flight, which area is Corpus Christi Intl. Airport located in?
• Setting the altimeter to field elevation causes the altimeter to indicate what value?
• Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance?
• Which item best describes the content of operating limitations?
• The three takeoffs and three landings required for PIC carrying passengers must be performed in aircraft sharing which characteristics?
• Which phrasing best represents the correct wake turbulence maneuver when departing behind a heavy aircraft?
• The wind direction and velocity at KJFK is from
• In the wind triangle, the line from A to B represents what?
• Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when which process occurs?
• Which operation would be described as preventative maintenance?
• What is one recommended method for locating thermals?
• Which thunderstorm stage is primarily driven by updrafts and shows significant vertical growth?
• Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?
• For ELT testing compliance, you should plan the test within:
• With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?
• Which of the following is true about the base of the ceiling when the base is 1,800 feet MSL and terrain is 1,295 feet MSL?
• Which aircraft has the right of way over all other air traffic?
• What is ground effect?
• The remarks section for KMDW has RAB35 listed. This entry means
• The 2,900 ft MSL limit for Collin Co RGL McKinney (TKI) is expressed in which unit?
• During which flight condition are the four forces in equilibrium?
• Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during which conditions?
• On a cross-country flight, what is the recommended action if the pilot is getting too low?
• When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?
• In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?
• At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level?
• With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a statement describing an experimental certificate operation?
• What does basic radar service in the terminal radar program provide to VFR aircraft?
• When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?
• True altitude will be lower than indicated altitude under which condition?
• Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?
• At what altitude were the wind and temperature reported as 080° at 21 knots and -7°C?
• What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area south of Dallas Executive (RBD)?
• What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head on?
• Shoshone County Airport is located at approximately which coordinates?
• In the wind triangle, the line from C to B represents what?
• For private pilot operations, a first class medical certificate issued to a 23 year old pilot on October 21, this year will expire at midnight on which date and how many years later?
• Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
• Turbulence intensity reported at a specific altitude is described as light within which altitude range?
• In a scenario where rime icing is present on the leading edge and the surface temperature is 3°C, what is the recommended approach speed action?
• What information is contained in a CONVECTIVE SIGMET?
• When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is
• An ATC advisory to a pilot on a heading of 090° states 'TRAFFIC 3 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND'. Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
• Which city and altitude pairing has a forecast of 230° true at 39 knots?
• How will frost on the wings of an airplane affect takeoff performance?
• Which configuration produces the strongest wake vortices?
• Which is the correct pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?
• When converting from true course to magnetic heading, which adjustments are applied?
• At which airports is fixed wing special VFR not authorized?
• Restricted areas such as R-5302B may contain which hazards?
• Where is the "Available Landing Distance" (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)?
• For a preventative maintenance event, which information must be documented in the maintenance records?
• What would decrease the stability of an airmass?
• The runway ends marked with the numbers 8 and 26 indicate approximate magnetic headings of
• In controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL, VFR flight requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of
• Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as
• What is the reported icing intensity and type?
• An experimental-certificated aircraft may operate over densely populated areas only if specifically authorized. Which option most closely reflects this rule?
• Prior to starting each maneuver, what should pilots do to support collision avoidance?
• Who may perform preventative maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for service?
• If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?
• During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominantly by downdrafts?
• The Aeronautical Information Manual provides guidance to turn on landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and within 10 miles of any airport. Which is the correct interpretation of this guidance?
• What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?
• Which statement about glide slope and a VASI-equipped approach is true?
• For a first flight of the day, the preflight inspection should be performed in what manner?
• Mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated under which combination of conditions?
• What is the proper recovery sequence from a steep diving spiral to the left to avoid overstressing the glider?
• Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition?
• When may hazardous wind shear be expected?
• Where may operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an Experimental or special light sport airworthiness certificate?
• Which stage of a thunderstorm is characterized predominantly by downdrafts, signaling its weakening?
• Which condition allows indicated altitude to equal true altitude?
• Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?
• What are the standard sea level atmospheric values used for temperature and pressure?
• The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is called which term?
• Which observation is most characteristic of crossing a weather front?
• Hazards in restricted areas such as R-5302B are described as which of the following?
• With the same placards, if the pilot's weight is 125 lb, what adjustment should be made?
• What is density altitude?
• What technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight?
• When requesting weather information for the following morning, a pilot should request:
• To minimize side loads on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep which axis parallel to the direction of motion?
• Who is responsible for collision avoidance in an alert area?
• If an aircraft's annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year, by what date is the next annual inspection due no later than?
• What is absolute altitude?
• According to placards, what is the minimum pilot weight for the front seat?
• Determine the wind and temperature aloft forecast for DEN at 9,000 feet.
• Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?
• If a non-rechargeable ELT battery has reached 50% of its useful life, what should be done?
• What are the current conditions depicted for Chicago Midway Airport (KMDW)?
• What is the aircraft identification used in the initial contact phrase?
• Which statement best describes Bernoulli's principle as it relates to lift?
• The presence of ice pellets at the surface indicates which condition aloft?
• How far will an aircraft travel in 7.5 minutes with a ground speed of 114 knots?
• Which action is included in preflight action when departing from an airport not in the immediate vicinity?
• What wind is forecast for STL at 12,000 feet?
• Which navigation facility is being received in the initial contact phrase with McAlester Flight Service?
• The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are?
• What exception permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?
• A third class medical certificate is issued to a 36 year old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on which date?
• Which packing interval is required for an approved parachute to be eligible for emergency use?
• In the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude?
• What weather condition was noted as warmer than expected in the density-altitude scenario?
• What is the minimum pilot certification required for operation within Class B airspace?
• Hyperventilation is defined as
• Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the ELT has not been activated?
• What is the upper boundary of Class G airspace at Tomlinson Airport?
• The yellow demarcation bar marking indicates a displaced threshold; this means
• The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown after departing and climbing out of Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet AGL are
• In accelerated or decelerated flight, the magnetic compass will normally indicate correctly only when the aircraft is on which headings?
• When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?
• Where does wind shear occur?
• Which aircraft has right of way if one is in distress?
• Altimeter setting is the value to which barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
• What practice, under visual flight rules, can lead to spatial disorientation or collision if the pilot continually flies into instrument conditions?
• An ATC advisory to a pilot on a heading of 360° states 'TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND'. Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
• Under BasicMed, which statement is true regarding the CMEC interval?
• What is the standard VFR squawk code that should be used unless otherwise authorized?
• Without each occupant having supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of
• Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by what airflow?
• The pilot of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB accident report within how many days?
• What does a steady green light signal from the control tower to an aircraft in flight indicate?
• Prior to becoming certified as a private pilot with a glider rating, the pilot must have in his or her possession what type of medical?
• If a pilot changes permanent mailing address and does not notify the FAA, for how long may the pilot continue to exercise flight privileges?
• During which stage of a thunderstorm is the storm typically most intense?
• Which statement best describes the 8-hour rule and crewmember duties?
• The development of thermals depends upon which factor?
• The airspace directly overlying the town of Findlay is
• Spatial disorientation is more likely to occur when visual cues are unavailable, such as in which condition?
• The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate at night over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 feet AGL are
• In the wind triangle, the line from C to A represents what?
• Which cloud type is most diagnostic of convective turbulence?
• What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
• A glider with a lift/drag ratio of 23:1 will sink about how many feet over 10 nautical miles?
• What is the latest time allowed to report the motor vehicle action after the conviction?
• In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?
• Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from
• What is the purpose of the No Entry sign?
• Where must the minimum 200 hours of PIC time be entered to tow a glider?
• Which aviation advisory would you consult for information on convective weather such as embedded thunderstorms?
• Which of the following best describes the departure pattern requirement at a noncontrolled airport?
• Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even with a current medical certificate?
• If ATC advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code
• FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by
• What is the approximate base of cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at 1,000 feet MSL is 70 degrees and the dewpoint is 48 degrees Fahrenheit?
• What is one purpose of wing flaps?
• Which type of briefing would be used to obtain updates to a previously issued briefing due to new weather information?
• When operating the transponder on the VFR code 1200, what is the minimum mode the transponder must be in?
• What is the minimum safe altitude over congested areas as defined in flight rules?
• What information should be entered for Item 15 on the flight plan form?
• When performing ELT verification, which of the following is the correct monitoring step?
• Wake turbulence vortex circulation around wingtip is described as
• Which location and altitude forecast includes a temperature of -4°C with a wind of 230° true at 21 knots?
• Within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport, Class B airspace extends from the surface up to what altitude?
• If air is stable, what is the expected surface visibility?
• Which statement about spin entry is true?
• Under night flight recency rules, if sunset is 1830, what is the latest time to carry passengers after that sunset?
• Which factor contributes to magnetic compass deviation due to onboard equipment and structures?
• During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled?
• In a spiral dive, the load factor on the aircraft tends to do what?
• In the TAF from KOKC, the clear sky becomes what during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z?
• Which description matches the current depiction for Chicago Midway (KMDW)?
• Which airspace is correctly paired with its basic VFR minimums: 1000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility?
• What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?
• What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
• Which term describes maintaining visual contact with the terrain in low visibility, leading to unsafe flight decisions?
• What does the acronym TRSA stand for?
• In ground effect, induced drag does what as the aircraft nears the surface?
• Wingtip vortices are created when an aircraft is developing lift. Which condition is present when this occurs?
• When ATC issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock, what does the reference correspond to?
• In the context of ADS-B Out operations, to whom should a pilot make a request if the equipment is inoperative in class C airspace?
• Which type of briefing would you request if you are planning a flight whose results are more than 24 hours away and you want a forecast?
• Which airspace requires a 4096-code transponder with encoding altimeter as part of its equipment requirements?
• Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?
• What code should be selected by a VFR aircraft under ATC radar service restrictions?
• Which factor most directly determines the size of Class D airspace?
• Outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day VFR flight is?
• When converting from true course to magnetic heading, what adjustment should a pilot apply?
• An aircraft departs an airport in the eastern daylight time zone at 0945 EDT for a 2 hour flight to an airport located in central daylight time zone. The landing should be coordinated at what universal time?
• The amount of water vapor air can hold depends on what parameter?
• In terms of timing, ELT testing should occur during:
• What is true altitude?
• Using a best glide ratio of 23:1, how many feet would be lost if the glider travels 4 nautical miles?
• If a towline breaks below 200 feet AGL, what should the glider pilot do?
• Which set correctly lists the four forces acting on an airplane in flight?
• When a pilot relies on short- and long-term memory for repetitive tasks, which item is often neglected?
• Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if
• What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?
• Which type of briefing is designed to provide the most complete weather information for a planned flight?
• During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is
• When may an ELT be tested?
• What is the recommended towing speed for all tows?
• What is the weather phenomenon known as a nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front?
• Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem?
• If RAIM capability is lost in flight, what is the pilot's assurance of GPS position?
• If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type of clouds can be expected?
• What must a recreational or private pilot have in their possession when acting as PIC?
• The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a
• Why should a VFR flight plan be filed with the FAA?
• Which weather pattern is associated with moist, unstable air?
• One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to
• When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state:
• How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?
• Which condition triggers a required flight test after alteration?
• When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
• For the aero tow of a glider that weighs 700 pounds, which towrope tensile strength would require safety links at each end of the rope?
• At what altitude should you begin entering a dust devil to start circling?
• The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the
• What altitude does Federal Airways Class E airspace begin from?
• Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should you strive to maintain?
• Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
• Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be: